Copyblogger is one of the most respected sites on the net for those in the business of being bloggers. So when our dear bard shows up in the title of one of their posts, I know it’s going to get some traffic. The premise is an interesting one:
…he mastered the art of writing for completely different audiences. He appealed to the ultra elite, to regular theater-goers who never missed a performance, and to the illiterate mobs in the cheap seats. And he managed to satisfy each audience magnificently.
I’m wondering how true that is, or if the author of this article just needed to back up his argument and brought out Shakespeare to do it?
Where my historians at? Is the above correct? Would you say that Shakespeare was actively addressing three distinct audiences, or even that an Elizabethan audience broke down that way?